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When explaining the meaning of a confidence interval don’t say “the probability that the parameter is in the interval is 0.95” because probability is a precious concept and this statement does not match the meaning of this term. Instead, say “We are 95% confident that the parameter is in the interval”.  Admittedly, I don’t know what people will make of the word “confident”. But I also don’t know what they will make of the word “probability”

If you live under the impression that in order to publish an empirical paper you must include the sentence “this holds with p-value x” for some number x<0.05 in your paper, here is a surprising bit of news for you: The editors of Basic and Applied Social Psychology have banned p-value from their journal, along with confidence intervals. In fact, according to the editorial, the state of the art of statistics “remains uncertain” so statistical inference is no longer welcome in their journal.

When I came across this editorial I was dumbfounded by the arrogance of the editors, who seem to know about statistics as much as I know about social psychology. But I haven’t heard about this journal until yesterday, and if I did I am pretty sure I wouldn’t believe anything they publish, p-value or no p-value. So I don’t have the right to complain here.

Here are somebodies who have the right to complain: The American Statistical Association. Concerned with the misuse, mistrust and misunderstanding of the p-value, ASA has recently issued a policy statement on p- values and statistical significance, intended for researchers who are not statisticians.

How do you explain p-value to practitioners who don’t care about things like Neyman-Pearson Lemma, independence and UMP tests ? First, you use language that obscures conceptual difficulties: “the probability that a statistical summary of the data would be equal to or more extreme than its observed value’’ — without saying what “more extreme’’ means. Second, you use warnings and slogans about what p-value doesn’t mean or can’t do, like “p-value does not measure the size of an effect or the importance of a result.’’

Among these slogans my favorite is

P-values do not measure the probability that the studied hypothesis is true, or the probability that the data were produced by random chance alone

What’s cute about this statement is that it assumes that everybody understands what “there is 5% chance that the studied hypothesis is true” and that the notion of P-value is the one that is difficult to understand. In fact, the opposite is true.

Probability is conceptually tricky. It’s meaning is somewhat clear in a situation of a repeated experiment: I more or less understand what it means that a coin has 50% chance to land on Heads. (Yes. Only more or less). But without going full subjective I have no idea what is the meaning of the probability that a given hypothesis (boys who eat pickles in kindergarten have higher SAT score than girls who play firefighters) is true. On the other hand, The meaning of the corresponding P-value relies only on the conceptually simpler notion of probabilities in a repeated experiment.

Why therefore do the committee members (rightly !) assume that people are comfortable with the difficult concept of probability that an hypothesis is true and are uncomfortable with the easy concept of p-value ? I think the reason is that unlike the word “p-value”, the word “probability” is a word that we use in everyday life, so most people feel they know what it means. Since they have never thought about it formally, they are not aware that they actually don’t.

So here is a modest proposal for preventing the misuse and misunderstanding of statistical inference: Instead of saying “this hypothesis holds with p-value 0.03” say “We are 97% confident that this hypothesis holds”. We all  know what “confident” means right ?

This post describes the main theorem in my new paper with Nabil. Scroll down for open questions following this theorem. The theorem asserts that a Bayesian agent in a stationary environment will learn to make predictions as if he knew the data generating process, so that the as time goes by structural uncertainty dissipates. The standard example is when the sequence of outcomes is i.i.d. with an unknown parameter. As times goes by the agent learns the parameter.

The formulation of learning to make predictions’ goes through merging, which traces back to Blackwell and Dubins. I will not give Blackwell and Dubin’s definition in this post but a weaker definition, suggested by Kalai and Lehrer.

A Bayesian agent observes an infinite sequence of outcomes from a finite set ${A}$. Let ${\mu\in\Delta(A^\mathbb{N})}$ represent the agent’s belief about the future outcomes. Suppose that before observing every day’s outcome the agent makes a probabilistic prediction about it. I denote by ${\mu(\cdot|a_0,\dots,a_{n-1})}$ the element in ${\Delta(A)}$ which represents the agent’s prediction about the outcome of day ${n}$ just after he observed the outcomes ${a_0,\dots,a_{n-1}}$ of previous days. In the following definition it is instructive to think about ${\tilde\mu}$ as the true data generating process, i.e., the process that generates the sequence of outcomes, which may be different from the agent’s belief.

Definition 1 (Kalai and Lehrer) Let ${\mu,\tilde\mu\in\Delta(A^\mathbb{N})}$. Then ${\mu}$ merges with ${\tilde\mu}$ if for ${\tilde\mu}$-almost every realization ${(a_0,\dots,a_{n-1},\dots)}$ it holds that

$\displaystyle \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty}\|\mu(\cdot|a_0,\dots,a_{n-1})-\tilde\mu(\cdot|a_0,\dots,a_{n-1})\|=0.$

Assume now that the agent’s belief ${\mu}$ is stationary, and let ${\mu=\int \theta~\lambda(\mathrm{d}\theta)}$ be its ergodic decomposition. Recall that in this decomposition ${\theta}$ ranges over ergodic beliefs and ${\lambda}$ represents structural uncertainty. Does the agent learn to make predictions ? Using the definition of merging we can ask, does ${\mu}$ merges with ${\theta}$ ? The answer, perhaps surprisingly, is no. I gave an example in my previous post.

Let me now move to a weaker definition of merging, that was first suggested by Lehrer and Smorodinsky. This definition requires the agent to make correct predictions in almost every period.

Definition 2 Let ${\mu,\tilde\mu\in\Delta(A^\mathbb{N})}$. Then ${\mu}$ weakly merges with ${\tilde\mu}$ if ${\tilde\mu}$-almost every realization ${(a_0,\dots,a_{n-1},\dots)}$ it holds that

$\displaystyle \lim_{n\rightarrow\infty,n\in T}\|\mu(\cdot|a_0,\dots,a_{n-1})-\tilde\mu(\cdot|a_0,\dots,a_{n-1})\|=0$

for a set ${T\subseteq \mathbb{N}}$ of periods of density ${1}$.

The definition of weak merging is natural: patient agents whose belief weakly merges with the true data generating process will make almost optimal decisions. Kalai, Lehrer and Smorodinsky discuss these notions of mergings and also their relationship with Dawid’s idea of calibration.

I am now in a position to state the theorem I have been talking about for two months:

Theorem 3 Let ${\mu\in\Delta(A^\mathbb{N})}$ be stationary, and let ${\mu=\int \theta~\lambda(\mathrm{d}\theta)}$ be its ergodic decomposition. Then ${\mu}$ weakly merges with ${\theta}$ for ${\lambda}$-almost every ${\theta}$.

In words: An agent who has some structural uncertainty about the data generating process will learn to make predictions in most periods as if he knew the data generating process.

Finally, here are the promised open questions. They deal with the two qualification in the theorem. The first question is about the “${\lambda}$-almost every ${\theta}$” in the theorem. As Larry Wasserman mentioned this is unsatisfactory in some senses. So,

Question 1 Does there exists a stationary ${\mu}$ (equivalently a belief ${\lambda}$ over ergodic beliefs) such that ${\mu}$ weakly merges with ${\theta}$ for every ergodic distribution ${\theta}$ ?

The second question is about strengthening weak merging to merging. We already know that this cannot be done for arbitrary belief ${\lambda}$ over ergodic processes, but what if ${\lambda}$ is concentrated on some natural family of processes, for example hidden markov processes with a bounded number of hidden states ? Here is the simplest setup for which I don’t know the answer.

Question 2 The outcome of the stock market at every day is either U or D (up or down). An agent believes that this outcome is a stochastic function of an unobserved (hidden) state of the economy which can be either G or B (good or bad): When the hidden state is B the outcome is U with probability ${q_B}$ (and D with probability ${1-q_B}$), and when the state is G the outcome is U with probability ${q_G}$. The hidden state changes according to a markov process with transition probability ${\rho(B|B)=1-\rho(G|B)=p_B}$, ${\rho(B|G)=1-\rho(G|G)=p_G}$. The parameter is ${(p_B,p_G,q_B,q_G)}$ and the agent has some prior ${\lambda}$ over the parameter. Does the agent’s belief about outcomes merge with the truth for ${\lambda}$-almost every ${(p_B,p_G,q_B,q_G)}$ ?.

A Bayesian agent is observing a sequence of outcomes in ${\{S,F\}}$. The agent does not know the outcomes in advance, so he forms some belief ${\mu}$ over sequences of outcomes. Suppose that the agent believes that the number ${d}$ of successes in ${k}$ consecutive outcomes is distributed uniformly in ${\{0,1,\dots k\}}$ and that all configuration with ${d}$ successes are equally likely:

$\displaystyle \mu\left(a_0,a_1,\dots,a_{k-1} \right)=\frac{1}{(k+1)\cdot {\binom{k}{d}}}$

for every ${a_0,a_1,\dots,a_{k-1}\in \{S,F\}}$ where ${d=\#\{0\le i.

You have seen this belief ${\mu}$ already though maybe not in this form. It is a belief of an agent who tosses an i.i.d. coin and has some uncertainty over the parameter of the coin, given by a uniform distribution over ${[0,1]}$.

In this post I am gonna make a fuss about the fact that as time goes by the agent learns the parameter of the coin. The word learning’ has several legitimate formalizations and today I am talking about the oldest and probably the most important one — consistency of posterior beliefs. My focus is somewhat different from that of textbooks because 1) As in the first paragraph, my starting point is the belief ${\mu}$ about outcome sequences, before there are any parameters and 2) I emphasize some aspects of consistency which are unsatisfactory in the sense that they don’t really capture our intuition about learning. Of course this is all part of the grand marketing campaign for my paper with Nabil, which uses a different notion of learning, so this discussion of consistency is a bit of a sidetrack. But I have already came across some VIP who i suspect was unaware of the distinction between different formulations of learning, and it wasn’t easy to treat his cocky blabbering in a respectful way. So it’s better to start with the basics.

Let ${A}$ be a finite set of outcomes. Let ${\mu\in\Delta(A^\mathbb{N})}$ be a belief over the set ${A^\mathbb{N}}$ of infinite sequences of outcomes, also called realizations. A decomposition of ${\mu}$ is given by a set ${\Theta}$ of parameters, a belief ${\lambda}$ over ${\Theta}$, and, for every ${\theta\in\Theta}$ a belief ${\mu_\theta}$ over ${A^\mathbb{N}}$ such that ${\mu=\int \mu_\theta~\lambda(\mathrm{d}\theta)}$. The integral in the definition means that the agent can think about the process as a two stages randomization: First a parameter ${\theta}$ is drawn according to ${\lambda}$ and then a realization ${\omega}$ is drawn according to ${\mu_\theta}$. Thus, a decomposition captures a certain way in which a Bayesian agent arranges his belief. Of course every belief ${\mu}$ admits many decompositions. The extreme decompositions are:

• The Trivial Decomposition. Take ${\Theta=\{\bar\theta\}}$ and ${\mu_{\bar\theta}=\mu}$.
• Dirac’s Decomposition. Take ${\Theta=A^\mathbb{N}}$ and ${\lambda=\mu}$. A “parameter” in this case is a measure ${\delta_\omega}$ that assigns probability 1 to the realization ${\omega}$.

Not all decompositions are equally exciting. We are looking for decompositions in which the parameter ${\theta}$ captures some fundamental property’ of the process. The two extreme cases mentioned above are usually unsatisfactory in this sense. In Dirac’s decomposition, there are as many parameters as there are realizations; parameters simply copy realizations. In the trivial decomposition, there is a single parameter and thus cannot discriminate between different interesting properties. For stationary process, there is a natural decomposition in which the parameters distinguish between fundamental properties of the process. This is the ergodic decomposition, according to which the parameters are the ergodic beliefs. Recall that in this decomposition, a parameter captures the empirical distribution of blocks of outcomes in the infinite realization.

So what about learning ? While observing a process, a Bayesian agent will update his belief about the parameter. We denote by ${\lambda_n\left(a_0,\dots,a_{n-1}\right)\in\Delta(\Theta)}$ the posterior belief about the parameter ${\theta}$ at the beginning of period ${n}$ after observing the outcome sequence ${a_0,\dots,a_{n-1}}$. The notion of learning I want to talk about in this post is that this belief converges to a belief that is concentrated on the true parameter ${\theta}$. The example you should have in mind is the coin toss example I started with: while observing the outcomes of the coin the agent becomes more and more certain about the true parameter of the coin, which means his posterior belief becomes concentrated around a belief that gives probability ${1}$ to the true parameter.

Definition 1 A decomposition of ${\mu}$ is consistent if for ${\lambda}$-almost every ${\theta}$ it holds that

$\displaystyle \lambda_n\left(a_0,\dots,a_{n-1}\right)\xrightarrow[n\rightarrow\infty]{w}\delta_\theta$

for ${\mu_\theta}$-almost every realization ${\omega=(a_0,a_1,\dots)}$.

In this definition, ${\delta_\theta}$ is Dirac atomic measure on ${\theta}$ and the convergence is weak convergence of probability measures. No big deal if you don’t know what it means since it is exactly what you expect.

So, we have a notion of learning, and a seminal theorem of L.J. Doob (more on that below) implies that the ergodic decomposition of every stationary process is consistent. While this is not something that you will read in most textbooks (more on that below too), it is still well known. Why do Nabil and I dig further into the issue of learnability of the ergodic decomposition ? Two reasons. First, one has to write papers. Second, there is something unsatisfactory about the concept of consistency as a formalization of learning. To see why, consider the belief ${\mu}$ that outcomes are i.i.d. with probability ${1/2}$ for success. This belief is ergodic, so from the perspective of the ergodic decomposition the agent knows the process’ and there is nothing else to learn. But let’s look at Dirac’s decomposition instead of the ergodic decomposition. Then the parameter space equals the space of all realizations. Suppose the true parameter (=realization) is ${\omega^\ast=(a_0,a_1,\dots)}$, then after observing the first ${n}$ outcomes of the process the agent’s posterior belief about the parameter is concentrated on all ${\omega}$ that agrees with ${\omega^\ast}$ on the first ${n}$ coordinates. These posterior beliefs converge to ${\delta_{\omega^\ast}}$, so that Dirac decomposition is also consistent ! We may say that we learn the parameter, but “learning the parameter” in this environment is just recording the past. The agent does not gain any new insight about the future of the process from learning the parameter.

In my next post I will talk about other notions of learning, originating in a seminal paper of Blackwell and Dubins, which capture the idea that an agent who learns a parameter can make predictions as if he new the parameter. Let me also say here that this post and the following ones are much influenced by a paper of Jackson, Kalai, Smorodinsky. I will talk more on that paper in another post.

For the rest of this post I am going to make some comments about Bayesian consistency which, though again standard, I don’t usually see them in textbooks. Especially I don’t know of a reference for the version of Doob’s Theorem which I give below, so if any reader can give me such a reference it will be helpful.

First, you may wonder whether every decomposition is consistent. The answer is no. For a trivial example, take a situation where ${\mu_\theta}$ are the same for every ${\theta}$. More generally troubles arrise when the realization does not pin down the parameter. Formally, let us say that function ${f:\Omega\rightarrow \Theta}$ pins down or identifies the parameter if

$\displaystyle \mu_\theta\left(\{\omega: f(\omega)=\theta\}\right)=1$

for ${\lambda}$-almost every ${\theta}$. If such ${f}$ exists then the decomposition is identifiable.

We have the following

Theorem 2 (Doob’s Theorem) A decomposition is identifiable if and only if it is consistent.

The if’ part follows immediately from the definitions. The only if’ part is deep, but not difficult: it follows immediately from the martingale convergence theorem. Indeed, Doob’s Theorem is usually cited as the first application of martingales theory.

Statisticians rarely work with this abstract formulation of decomposition which I use. For this reason, the theorem is usually formulated only for the case that ${\Theta=\Delta(A)}$ and ${\mu_\theta}$ is i.i.d. ${\theta}$. In this case the fact that the decomposition is identifiable follows from the strong law of large numbers. Doob’s Theorem then implies the standard consistency of Bayesian estimator of the parameter ${\theta}$.